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2020-2021学年度第二学期期末调研高一英语试题注意事项:1.本试卷共10页,全卷满分150分,答题时间为120分钟;2.答卷前,考生须准确填写自己的姓名、准考证号,并认真核准条形码上的姓名、准考证号;3.选择题必须使用2B铅笔填涂,非选择题
必须使用0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔书写,土写要工整、清晰;4.考试结束后,监考员将答题卡按顺序收回,装袋整理;试题卷不回收。第一部分:听力(共两节,满分30分)第一节(共5小题,每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选
项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。1.Whatarethespeakerstalkingabout?A.Hobbies.B.Sports.C.Arts.2.Whydoesthemanrefusetheinvitatio
n?A.Towriteapaper.B.Tohavearest.C.Totakeaclass.3.WhereisDavid?A.Inthefruitstore.B.Athome.C.Inagrocerystor
e.4.WhatwilltheweatherbelikeinNewYorktomorrow?A.Sunny.B.Rainy.C.Snowy.5.Whattimedoesthehealthprogrambegin?A.7:00.B.8:30.C
.9:25.第二节(共15小题,每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题
5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。6.Whatimpressedthewoman?A.Theanimals.B.Theclock.C.Thetower.7.Whatisthemanconcernedab
out?A.Thetravelingtime.B.Thelackofwarmclothes.C.Thecostoftheevent.听第7段材料,回答第8至9题。8.WhereistheFerryTheater?A.OnDublinStre
et.B.OnLondonRoad.C.IntheTownHall.9.HowwillthewomanprobablygettotheModemArtGallery?A.Bybus.B.Bysubway.C.Onfoot.听第8段材料,回答第10至12题。10.Whatare
thespeakersmainlytalkingabout?A.Howtochooseabook.B.Howtoreadonline.C.Howtoreadfast.11.Whatdoesthemanadvisethewomantodo?A.Tak
eafreecourseontheInternet.B.Takeacourseinaschool.C.Askherfriendsforhelp.12.Whatcanwelearnfromtheconversation?A.Themand
islikesreadingonline.B.Thewomanlikesreadinglongnovels.C.Themanusedtoreadlikethewoman.听第9段材料,回答第13至16题。13
.Whatdidthewomanplantostudyatfirst?A.Art.B.Law.C.Business.14.Whydoesthewomandecidetostudymedicinenow?A.Becausedoctorsarehighlypaid.
B.Becausepeoplealwaysrespectdoctors.C.BecausetherearenotenoughdoctorsinChina.15.Whatisthemanstudying?A.English.B.History.
C.Marketing.16.Whatcanwelearnfromtheconversation?A.Thetwospeakersareworkmates.B.Themanhasalsochangedhismi
nd.C.Thewomangivesthemansomeusefuladvice.听第10段材料,回答第17至20题。17.WhereisLasVegas?A.Inthedesert.B.Nearaforest.C.ClosetoNewYork.18.WhatisLasVegasfamousfo
r?A.Swimmingpools.B.Fashion.C.Cardgames.19.Whichispopularwithkids?A.Museums.B.Restaurant.C.Musicclubs.
20.WhatisthepurposeofthisintroductionstoLasVegas?A.Toteachvisionaboutplayingcards.B.Toefamiliestobringtheirchildren.C.Tosuggestdiffere
ntactivitiesforvisitors.第二部分:阅读理解(共两节,满分40分)第一节(共15小题,每小题2分,满分30分)阅读下列四篇短文,从每小题后所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该
选项涂黑。AAWalkingTourinRockyMountainNationalPark,ColoradoRockyMountainNationalParkcovensabout41squaremileswithdozensofmountainpeaks
.Morethan250speciesofbirdswilldelightyoursensesandmorethan900typesofwildflowerswillkeepyoumarveling(感到惊奇)atheirbeaut
y.YourColoradowalkingtourofficiallybegins.Toensurethatyouarriveontimewestronglysuggestthatarriveonedaybeforethedeparturedate.Day1Thetripbegi
nsa1:00p.m.TravelbybustoRockyMountainNationalPark.Checkinouraccommodations,enjoyafreshlunchandheadintotheparkforourfirsthike.Day2Duringtoday’shikew
ewillcover3.8mile.We’llstoptoenjoyboth“ThePool”andFernFallsonourwaytoFernLake.You’llenjoyeveryminuteoftoday’shikeandthenspendarelaxingeveningnthetow
nofEstesPark.Day3GlacierGorge.themainsectionofthePark,hassomeofthemostbeautifulattractionsinthePark.Todaywe’llpushourbootsuthetrailt
oBlackLake,about4.7miles.WithviewsofLongsPeak,we’llhikePastamajorwaterfallandseveralsmallerlakesbeforearrivin
gatBlackLake.Day4Todaywe’llheadt1oWildBasin,southeastofthemainparkarea,forahiketoOuzelLake.WildBasintraverses(穿过)throughAspenforestpastrushi
ngstreams,toahighmountainlakewherewewillenjoyapicniclunch.Day5TheFlatTopMountainareawilldelightyoursenseswi
ththickforestsandmeadowsofabundantwildflowerOurfeetwillcarryuforabout8.8miles.Day6CatchtheEstesParkShuttletoDenverInternatio
nalAirportorcontinueonyourowntootheradventures!21.Wherewillpeoplesleeponthesecondday?A.ByBlackLake.B.ByFemLa
ke.C.OnFlatTopMountain.D.InthetownofEstesPark.22.WhenwillpeoplehikeinGlacierGorge?A.Day1.B.Day2.C.Day3.D.Day4.23.W
hatcanpeopleenjoyintheFlatTopMountainarea?A.Lotsofflowers.B.Majorwaterfall.C.Rushingstreams.D.Alake.BThe10,000stepsadaytargetseem
stohavecomeaboutfromatradenamepedometersoldin1965byYamasaClockinJapan.Thedevicewascalled“Manpo-kei”,whichtranslatesto“10,000stepsmeter”.T
hiswasamarketingtoolforthedeviceandhasseemedtohavestuckacrosstheworldasthedailysteptarget.It’sevenincludedindailya
ctivitytargetsbypopularsmart-watches,suchasFitbit.InancientRome,distanceswereactuallymeasuredbycountingsteps.Infact,theword“
mile”originatedfromtheLatinphrasemilapassum,whichmeansabout2,000steps.It’ssuggestedtheaveragepersonwalksabout100stepsperminute,whic
hwouldmeanitwouldtakealittleunder20minutesfortheaveragepersontowalkamile.Soinorderforsomeonetoreachthe10
,000—stepgoal,theywouldneedtowalkaboutfivemilesaday,nearlytwohoursofactivity.Researchershaveinvestigatedthe10,000st
epsadaytarget.Thefactthatsomestudieshaveshownthissteptargetimproveshearthealth,mentalhealth,andevenlowersdiabetes(糖尿病)risk,may,tosomeextent,explain
whywehavestuckwiththisnumber.Butwhilesomeresearchhasshownhealthbenefitsat10,000steps,recentresearchf
romHarvardMedicalSchoolhasshownthat,onaverage,nearly4,400stepsadayisenoughtosignificantlylowertheriskofdeathinwomen.Thiswaswhe
ncomparedtoonlywalkingaround2,700stepsdaily.Themorestepspeoplewalked,thelowertheirriskofdyingwas,beforelevelingoffataround7,500steps
aday.Noadditionalbenefitswereseenwithmoresteps.Althoughit’suncertainwhethersimilarresultwouldbeseeninmen,it’soneexampleofhowmovingalitt
lebitmoredailycanimprovehealthandlowerriskofdeath.24.Fromwhichdoestaking10,000stepsforwalkersoriginallycome?A.AncientRome.B.F
itbit.C.Milapassum.D.Manpo-kei.25.Howmanystepswillyoulakeonaveragetocovertwomiles?A.2000.B.2700.C.4000.D.7500.26.Whatdoestheunderlinedphra
se“levelingoff”inthelastparagraphmean?A.Remainingsteady.B.IncreasinggreatlyC.Decreasingsharply.D.Disappearingsuddenly27.What
canwelearnfromthelastparagraph?A.Themoreyouwalkdaily,thehealthieryouwillbe.B.7.500stepsorsoadayistheide
alnumberforwomen.C.Tobehealthyyou’dbetterwalktenthousandstep.D.Thenumberofeffectivestepsinthesameformenandwomen.C
Avoidingahandshakemayhavebeenconsideredimpoliteacoupleofyearsagobutitisnowgettingmoreandmorecommon,especiallybecauseofthe
outbreakoftheCOVID-19.Healthofficialshaveexpressedtheimportanceofcompletelywashingourhandsandmaintainingproperhandhygiene.Asaresult,peoplearoundth
eworldarecreatingalternativesforhandshakessuchasfistbumpsand“elbow-bumps.”Let’stakealookatsomeofthecommongreetingthatareusedaround
theworldinplaceofthefamoushandshakeandmoreofthealternativespeopleareusinginsteadofshakingeachothers’hands.Ifyouhave
evertraveledtoAsiancountrieslikeChina,India,orCambodia,youmaynoticethatitiscommontoseepeoplebowingtogreetother.Bowingisatraditionalsignofrespe
ctinmanyAsianculturesandhasbeenacustomforcenturies.Meanwhile,inpartsofEuropelikeFrance,Italy,andSpain;countriesi
nLatin/SouthAmericalikeMexico,Peru,andBrazil,theairkissismorecommon.Variousrulesregardinggender,relationship,andformalsoexist
withinthesedifferentcountries.OfficialsincountriesincludingFrancearerecommendingpeopleavoiddirectkisses
.Someotheruniquegreetingsincludesniffingoneanother’sfacesinnativeculturesintheislandnationsofGreenlandandTuvalu,stickingoutone’stongueinTibet(aregi
onofchina),andclappingone’shandsintheAfricancountiesofZimbabweandMozambique.WiththespreadofCOVID-19,peoplearegettin
gcreativewiththewaystheygreeteachother.Atrendthathasgainedadvantageisthe“WuhanShake,”agreetingwheretwopeo
plegentlybumpeachother’sfeetwitheachfoot.Additionally,people,includingfamousfigureslikePrinceHarry,USVic
ePresidentMikePence,andcelebritiesandathletes,havebeengivinguptheformalhandshakeforelbowbumps.Althoughofficialshave
notclearlyissuedwarningsagainstshakinghands,manydoctorsandhealthspecialistshavepraisedthehandshakealternativesasawaytoconti
nuemaintainingproperhygiene.28.HowdpeoplecommonlygreeteachotherinIndiaaccordingtothispassage?A.Byhuggingeachother.B.Byformallyshakinghands.C.B
ybowingtogreeteachother.D.Bytouchingnose.29.WhatistheuniquegreetinginTibet?A.Sniffingoneanother’sfac
e.B.Stickingoutone’stongue.C.Bowingwithone’shands.D.Cappingone’shands.30.Whatisthe“WuhanShake”?A.Itisagreetingoftappingeachoth
erfeet.B.Itisagreetinginwhichpeopledoelbowhump.C.Itisagreetingwheresocialisolationhappens.D.Itisagreetingwhe
reairkissesarerecommended.31.Whatcanbethebedtileforthetext?A.TheImpactOfCOVID-19OnLivingB.GoodNews0nCOVID-19VaccineC.FormalGreetingWaysAroundtheWor
ldD.NoHandshake?NoProblem!DAnewstudysuggeststhatdarkmakingsontheplanetMarsrepresentsand—notwater.Theresearchi
n2015suggestedthatlinesonsomeMartianhillswereevidenceofwater.YetAmericanscientistsnowsaytheselinesappearmorelikedry,flowsofsand.If
waterispresent,itislikelytobeasmallamount.Waterinliquidformwouldbenecessaryformicrobial(微生物的)life.NASA,theAmericanspaceagency,saidmor
eresearchisneeded.MichaelMeyeristheleadscientistforNASA’sMarsexplorationprogramme.Henotedthatthelateststudydoesnotrejectthepresenceof
water.Buttheadmitted,“Itjustmaynotbeasexcitingastheideaofriversgoingdownthesidesofcliffs(悬崖).”ThenewfindingscomefromateamledbyCol
inDundasoftheUnitedStatesGeologicalSurvey.Histeammeasured151oftheselinesin10areas.Mostofthelinesendwithslopesbetween28degreesand35degrees
.Thesemeasurementsaresimilartoactivesanddunes(沙丘)onbothMarsandEarth.Asmallcoveringofdustthatmovesandsometimesbecomes
lightermighthelpexplainthemarkings.TheyusuallyappearintheMartiansummertime,andthendisappearuntilthenextyear.I
ftheselinesaredry,thissuggeststhatrecentMarshasnothadlargevolumesofliquidwater.Dundasandhisresearchteamsaythatmanyquestionsremain.“Istillthinktha
tMarshasagreatpotentialforhavinghadlifeearlyoninitshistory,”Meyersaid.“Aslongasthat’strue,wealsohaveareasonablepossibilityoflifestillbein
gonMars.Itjusthappenstobecrypticorwellhidden.”NASAcurrentlyhasnoroboticvehicle—eitheronMarsorindevelopment—wit
htheabilitytoclimbsteepslopes.ThelackofsuchequipmenthasengineerscomingupwithidealikeMartianhelicoptersorplaneswithou
tpilots.32WhatdoAmericanscientistsfindonMarsnowaccordingtotheirstudy?A.Alotoflittlelife.B.Anamountofwater.C.SomeMartinhills.D.Darkmarkingsaresa
nd.33.Whendothemarkingscomeout?B.InMartiansummer.A.InMarianspringC.InMartianautumn.D.InMartianwinter.34.What’sMeyer’sopinionabouthavinglifeonMars?A.D
oubtful.B.Indifferent.C.Trustful.D.Unclear.35.Whatdoestheunderlinedword“cryptic”inParagraph4mean?A.Undiscovered.B.Strange.C.Magical.D.Icy.第二节(共5小题,
每小题2分,满分10分)根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。FETIVALSANDCELEBRATIONSFestivalsandcelebrationsofallkindsha
vebeenheldeverywheresinceancienttimes.Mostancientfestivalswouldcelebratetheendofcoldweather,plantinginspringandharvestinautumn.Today’sfestivalshav
emanyorigins.Somearereligious.Someareseasonal.36.FestivalsoftheDeadSomefestivalsareheldtohonourthedeadortosatisfy
theancestors,whomightreturneithertohelportodoharmFortheJapanesefestivalObon,peopleshouldgotocleangravesandlightincenseinmemoryof
theirancestors.TheWesternholidayHalloweenisnowachildren’sfestival,whentheycandressupandgototheirneighbors:homestoaskforsweets.37,th
echildrenmightplayatrickonthemFestivalstoHonourPeople38.TheDragonBoatFestivalinChinahonorsthefamousancientpoet,QuYuan.Indiahasanationalfestivaltohono
urMohandasGandhi,heleaderwhohelpedginIndia’sindependencefromBritain.39HarvestandThanksgivingfestivalscanbeveryhappyevents
PeoplearegratefulbecausetheirfoodisgatheredforthewinterChinaandJapanhavemid-autumnfestivals,whenpeopleadmi
rethemoonandinChina,enjoymoon-cakes.SpringFestivalsThemostenergeticandimportantfestivalsaretheonesthatlookforwa
rdtotheendofwinterandthecomingofspring.40,peopleeatdumplingsandmaygivechildrenluckymoneyinredpaper.InsomeWesterncounties,Easterisanimportan
treligiousandsocialfestivalforChristiansaroundtheworld.ItcelebratesthereturnofJesusfromthedeadandthecomingofspringandnewlife.A.Harve
stFestivalsB.TraditionalFestivalsC.Theyofferfood,flowersandgiftstothedeadD.FestivalscanalsobeheldtohonourfamouspeopleE.Iftheneighborsdonotgivean
ysweetsF.DuringtheSpringFestivalinChinaG.Andsomeareforspecialpeopleorevents第三部分:英语知识运用(共两节,满分45分)第一节完形填空(共20小题,每小题1.5分,满分30分)阅读下面短文,
从短文后各题的A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出合适填入对应空白处的最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该选项涂黑。Inkindergarten,Imetmyfirstlove—dancing.Forthelastelevenyears,Ihavespe
ntmanyhoursatthedancestudio.The41Ibeganasalittlegirlhasshapedmypersonality,forming42thatIwillhavefortherestofmylife.Once
whileourdanceteam43forthestatecompetition,sixseniormembersquitwithoutnotice,leavingourteamwithouta44.Myteam’senthusiasmfortheseas
onwascutinhalf.45,Iwasdeterminedtobecomethenewcaptainandleadmyteampastthisobstacle.Duringthefirstprac
ticeaftertheseniorsquit,myteam’semotionwas46.Asaleader,Itriedtomotivatemyteamthrough47.Istartedtodo48workoutsidepra
cticetoimprovemykickingtechnique.MyteamrespectedmeasacoachbecauseIshowed49.Onweekends,Ispenthourstryingtomakeupacreativecompetitionroutine.Iwante
dmyteammembersto50thedanceandperformwell.Beforethestatemeet,Idrilledthe51intothegirls’headsandconstantlyencouragedthemtoworktogether.Iwou
ldshoutoutnamesofpeoplewhowere52wellduringthedance,andthegirlswould53withevenmoreenergy.Throughmydanceexperie
nce,IalsofoundIgotbetterby54myself.Imixednewskillsintotheroutineforthestatecompetitionto55myteam’stechnique.Wewantedtoprovetoourselv
esandourschoolthatwecouldstillbea(n)56danceteamwithoutthegirlswho57.Onthestage,Ifeltmyteam’s58.Iwasproudthatwewereableto
rebuildourconfidenceandgobeyondourexpectationatthestatecompetition.Wewere59forallourhardworkbyplacinginthetopfive.Th
isexperiencetaughtmealesson:withapassionforsomething,Icould60anyobstaclewithcreativityanddeterminatio
n.41.A.educationB.activityC.travelD.research42.A.qualitiesB.competitionsC.connectionsD.opinions43.A.lookedB.le
ftC.practicedD.hoped44.A.targetB.captainC.projectD.guide45.A.OtherwiseB.BesidesC.InsteadD.However46.A.growingB.normalC.lowD.up47.A.exa
mpleB.awardC.promiseD.experience48.A.newB.extraC.littleD.personal49.A.productionB.expectationC.promotionD.devotion50.A.loveB.
checkC.believeD.ignore51.A.resultB.failureC.routineD.function52.A.planningB.judgingC.predictingD.performing53.A.dealB.respondC
.defendD.compare54.A.remindingB.teachingC.protectingD.challenging55.A.admireB.shareC.improveD.prove56.A.familiarB.similar
C.ordinaryD.brilliant57.A.quitB.joinedC.appreciatedD.approached58.A.patienceB.kindnessC.energyD.pride59.A.rewardedB.thankedC.preparedD.moved60.At
hinkofB.getoverC.careaboutD.keepon第二节语法填空(共10小题,每小题1.5分,满分15分)阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。Apictureof17-year-oldZangGuimeihasgonevir
al(走红)onChina’ssocialmedia.Netizensare61.______(deep)touchedbythefresh-facedgirlinthepicture,whichisafarcryfromZ
hang’snowaged62.______weathered(饱经风霜的)facethatpeoplearefamiliarwith.Ittellsstoryofwomanwho63.______(have)devotedherlifetopromotingedu
cationandfightingpovertyinruralareas.BorninNortheastChina’sHeilongjiangprovincein1957,Zhang64.______
(go)toYunnanattheageof17.Shehasbeenhelpinggirlsfrompoorareasreceiveeducation65.______over40years.Shehelpedestablishthecount
ry’sfirstseniorhighschooltoofferfreeeducationforgirlsfrompoorfamilies.Theschoolprovidesfreeeducationtogirls66.______wouldotherwisehavebe
enunabletocontinuetheirstudiesafter67.______(complete)theirnineyearsofcompulsoryeducation.“I68.______(b
uild)tobeamountainnotcreek(小溪).Iwasborntobegreat,notworthless.”ThemottoofHuapingHighSchoolforGirlsisalso69.______truereflectionofZhangG
uimei’sstrengthanddetermination.OnFeb17,ZhangGuimeireceivedanawardforbeingoneofChina’sinspiringrole70.______(mo
del)byTVprogramTouchingChina2020.第四部分:写作(共两节,满分35分)第一节短文改错(共10小题,每小题1分,满分10分)假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文,请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误,每句中最多
有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。增加:在缺词处加一个漏字符号(^),并在其下面写出该加的词。删除:把多余的词用斜线(\)划掉。修改:在错的词下划一横线,并在该词下面写出修改后的词。注意:1.每处错误及其修改均仅限一词;2.只允许修改10处,多者(从第11处起
)不计分。I‘dliketotalkaboutmymostmemorableexperience.ItwerethetriptoCanada1hadthreeyearsagowithmydancegrouptopartic
ipateininternationaldancefestival.ItwasthefirsttimeIhadtravelledbyplaneinyourlife.Mymumworriedalot,soeverythingwentsmoothly.Istayedattherefortwowee
kanditwasthehappiertimeinmylife.Besideourperformancesthere.wehadmuchexcitement.Wespentalmosteverymorningswiminthebluesea.ButwarmlyCanadiannights
weewhichIlikedmostofall.Itwasatimeofjoy,light,musicandsummerparties.第二节书面表达(满分25分)假定你是李华。你的英国好友Joe竞选篮球队队长失败了。他给你来信说他很受挫败。请你根据以下要点提示,给他写一封慰问信。要点:1.得
知消息;2.安慰并鼓励他;3.表达自己的关心和祝愿。提示:1.可适当增加细节,以使行文连贯;2.词数:不少于100词(开头已给出,但不计入总词数)。3.参考词汇:竞选runforDearJoe,Iam
sorrytohearthatyoufailedinyourattempttorunforthepositionofthebasketballteamleader.____________________________
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___________________________________________________________________________________________________Yours,LiHua20
20~2021学年度第二学期期末调研高一英语试题参考答案及评分标准第一部分:听力(共两节,满分30分)第一节(共5小题,每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)1.A2.B3.C4.B5.A第二节(共15小题,每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)6.C7.A8.A
9.B10.C11.A12.C13.B14.C15.A16.B17.A18.C19.A20.B第二部分:阅读理解(共两节,满分40分)第一节(共15小题,每小题2分,满分30分)A)21.D22.C23.AB)24.D25.C26.A27.
BC)28.C29.B30.A31.DD)32.D33.B34.C35.A第二节(共5小题,每小题2分,满分10分)36.G37.E38.D39.A40.F第三部分:英语知识运用(共两节,满分45分)第一节完形填空(共20小题,每小题1.5分,满分30分)41.B42.A43.C4
4.B45.D46.C47.A48.B49.D50.A51.C52.D53.B54.D55.C56.D57.A58.C59.A60.B第二节语法填空(共10小题,每小题1.5分,满分15分)61.deeply62.and63.has6
4.went65.for66.who/that67.completing68.wasbuilt69.a70.models第四部分:写作(共两节,满分35分)第一节短文改错(共10小题,每小题1分,满分10分)I‘dlik
etotalkaboutmymostmemorableexperience.ItwerethetriptoCanada1hadthreeyearsagowithmydancewasgrouptoparticipatein^internationald
ancefestival.ItwasthefirsttimeIhadtravelledbyplaneinyourlife.Mymumanmyworriedalot,soeverythingwentsmoothly.Istayeda
ttherefortwoweekanditwasthehappiertimeinmylife.buthappiestBesideourperformancesthere.wehadmuchexcitement
.Wespentalmosteverymorningswiminthebluesea.ButBesidesswimmingwarmlyCanadiannightsweewhichIlikedmostofall.Itwasatimeof
joy,light,musicandsummerparties.warmwhat第二节书面表达(满分25分)参考范文:DearJoe,Iamsorrytohearthatyoufailedinyourattempttorunforthepositionofth
ebasketballteamleader.Iknowexactlyhowyoufeel.However,wecanlearnmorelessonsfromfailurethanfromsuccessMaybeitisagoodthingforyourfuture.No
wwhatisimportantistocheerup.Learnfromtheexperienceandthinkaboutwhattodonext.Tobeexact,first,didyoumakegoodpreparationsfo
rthecompetition?Itisveryimportanttobewellpreparedforallkindsofactivities.Second,whatareyourstrengthsandshortcomings?Thisisanotherquestion
foryoutothinkdeeplyabout,becauseitwillmakeyournextattemptmoresuccessful.Havefaithinyourself.Youareacapable,wisepersonandIbelieveinyou.Yours,Li
Hua一、评分原则1.本题总分为25分,按五个档次给分。2.评分时,首先根据作文的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次,然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调整档次,最后给分。3.词数少于100的,从得分中减去2分。4.评分的观察点为:写作要点、应用词汇和语
法结构的多样性、准确性以及上下文的连贯性。5.拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面。评分时,应视其对交际的影响程度子以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。6.如书写较差,影响交际,将分数降低个档次。二、各档次的给分
范围和要求第五档:(21~25分)完全完成了试题规定的任务。——覆盖所有写作要点,陈述充分。——应用恰当语法结构和词汇。——语法结构和词汇方面有个别错误,主要表现在复杂语法结构或较高级词汇层面。具备较强的语言运用能力。——语句间有效使用连接成分,全文结构紧
凑。完全达到预期规定的任务的写作目的。第四档:(16~20分)